“Like all of God’s commandments, it’s an opportunity to show you love God, and your neighbor” (Israel)
Still doesn’t answer the question – what is moral about circumcision. I proclaim here today ‘circumcision is an amoral action’
The contention with Messianics is that Gentile Christians are to follow all of the Torah – including the rituals (ie: circumcision/kosher) and festivals (ie: Unleavened Bread, Sukkot, Passover, etc). However I find little proof for the idea. I find logic works against such an idea.
“We can rightly deduce from precedent, and from the example of Timothy, that he is temporarily limiting Jewish conversion for his Corinthian disciples because of the danger that they would be converting from the wrong reason” (Israel)
Then Paul broke the commandment – because you claim they are celebrating a feast in chapter 5 – but by chapter 7 we know this cannot be so according to the rules you live by – some of them are not circumcised “Has anyone been called in uncircumcision? He is not to be circumcised”. So which is it – they celebrated those feasts/festivals or they didn’t?
You claim Paul thought they were getting circumcised for all the wrong reasons – to secure salvation. This may be so – but then Paul’s answer is to tell people to not be circumcised? If he believes this is what God wants anyways – why doesn’t he just allow the circumcision and explain it to them later? That boggles my mind.
If I knew my faith required me to be circucmcised and people were doing it for the wrong reason – should I not do what is required? Yet Paul, is stopping people! That is such a stupid stance to take when he can as easily say ‘get circumcised to keep with your faith’ and explain it all in his letter to the confusion surrounding the issue. He stops people that are gentiles – regardless.
For me the problem is – where is it Gentiles are explicitly explained how to follow these festivals and rituals? Any quick search of the NT texts will reveal Paul is stopping people from being circumcised – festivals are non extant in the gospels and letters – and Acts says nothing on the issue.
The justification according to Messianics is already in the passages – although not explicitly mentioned – they are implied in the finer details. This is where I disagree.
These letters and gospels are written to Gentiles – yet nothing outlines for them how to enact and celebrate these festivals or rituals. The one’s metioned are a passover meal (not the whole passover celebration) and a baptism. No explanation of the rest has to mean no familiarity with them. Plus nowhere are they commanded to observe these things – and repeat – nowhere.
Should one follow this path on the basis of flimsy evidence?