Comment taken from Stand to Reason’s blog ‘This is Most Certainly True’
“The fact that it scandalizes you that YHWH would be baptized by John is no evidence for anything at all” (WL)
Well baptized unto repentance is what should be scandalous. Remember, blind spot.
“The reason its the only one I’ll accept is that the passage clearly says John is preparing the way for Jesus in the place where the OT passage says that the voice is crying to prepare the way for YHWH” (WL)
John is obviously the one in the wilderness preparing the way for the ‘Lord’ (that’s obvious). However, as we go further down that story-line – how come John does not call Jesus ‘Lord’ if he is making this autmoatic connection you think is there?
John, the great genius proclaimer you think he is, in chapter 11 about this person Jesus is (according to you – literally God in the Flesh)…doubting of him.
Matt 11:2-3 “Now when John, while imprisoned, heard of the works of Christ, he sent word by his disciples and said to Him, “Are You the Expected One, or shall we look for someone else?”
For anyone who cares what Jesus says in Chapter of 11 in Matthew says – he proclaims to be the messiah (not God) in vs.5. In fact John’s questions are framed around this conccept – Christ = Messiah = Anointed One = Expected One (awaiting this arrival).
Notice that John doesn’t ask in Matthew 11 if Jesus is God? No question and no assumption about that idea…no clue in chapter 3 (according to you) he made this proclamation about Jesus being equal to God…John, for the greatest person to walk the world ever, has a short memory.
“Also BTW, Jesus allusion to Malachi 3:1 there in Matthew 11:10 is another OT-NT link that establishes that Jesus=YHWH.” (WL)
Matthew 11:10 “This is the one about whom it is written,’BEHOLD, I SEND MY MESSENGER AHEAD OF YOU, WHO WILL PREPARE YOUR WAY BEFORE YOU.’
Let’s say Jesus is recalling what he said in Matthew 3 about John (even if John seems to have forgetten him). I will grant this is likely the case according to the story.
How come they change the wording in Matt 11 exactly? It no longer says Lord, and it is no longer a direct quotation of Isaiah 40:3 (Matt 3 was a direct quotation).
John prepared the way for Jesus – even if John forgets who he is. No mistaking they did have the same message…’repent for the kingdom of heaven is at hand’. So in this vein they are very similar and one picked up where the other left off (so to speak). Matthew 11 is asserting this is the case.
However, Matthew 3 (which uses the actual Isaish 40:3 verse) is stating nothing about Jesus divinity nor is Matthew 11.
Matthew 11, if it is a clarification of Matthew 3, seems to be assuming John was the pathway for Jesus to follow. Now that the pathway was out of the way Jesus had to take over the mission…and this time it was not just a prophet…but a messiah.
See the probelm you have with saying that passage says Jesus is God is the problem every passage in the synoptics runs into – Jesus never once says his mission is to be ‘God in the flesh’ and ‘his blood be an atonement for the people’.
Jesus makes no claim to being God…none…I find it very weird God would hide that one (if He is trying to win Israel over – His people). However, if it’s the messiah that arrives to usher in the kingdom of the Lord – well it God’s best representative and someone that can be said to ‘speak on behalf of the company’…not to prepare the way – to actually introduce the new kingdom on behalf of God (since he has a very prestige position in that kingdom).